Dear all, I'm wondering if someone might be able to offer me any suggestions to my current IPv6 routing dilemma.
We have a dual-homed mikrotik device where one of our providers is now supporting IPv6 and the other one will shortly. We also have a /48 PI IPv6 block and an AS number.
Our PPPoE connection to our provider connects without a problem and is assigned an IPv6 /128 address and the gateway is the name of the PPPoE interface. This looks fine.
Our 2x BGP sessions come up and present 2x default routes that appear in the routing window correctly.
Our 2x BGP sessions also advertise our PI block to the ISP's 2x BGP peers and I can see them advertised across the web using a BGP lookup and routing looks fine back to the ISP.
I have static routes in place to the ISP BGP peer A using the PPPoE gateway and the ISP BGP peer B using the PPPoE gateway. This is to allow the router to gain access to the ISP's BGP peers prior to obtaining the default routes from them.
I also have a static route in place to the ISP BGP router that is presented to me as the next hop in the in the BGP default routes. The default routes come in as ::/0 with a next hop address but if I don't put in a static route to this next hop address then the our router cannot get to it.
I can now ping a device on the public internet from the router.
Now, what to do with the PI block. I've hooked a subset /64 of the PI block up to the LAN interface and advertised this using SLAAC and my clients get an address correctly and can ping the routers LAN interface. What I cannot seem to do no matter how hard I try is make this router route traffic from my client connected PC through the router and out to the internet.
Am I missing something obvious here, I've tried everything I can think of, but a bit new to BGP and IPv6 which is not helping?